Exam : IBM 000-374

March 14th, 2010 | test4actual

Exam : IBM 000-374
Title : IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 SystemAdministration
Version : DEMO

1. A legacy application uses MQPUT to send messages to a queue INV.
Which set of MQSC commands below will successfully configure the queue manager so that a number of JMS applications can receive these messages by subscribing to topic Inventory/CurrentItems?
A. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE QALIAS(INV) TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
B. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE TALIAS(INV) TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
C. DEFINE TOPIC (INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems) QALIAS(INV)
D. DEFINE QALIAS(INV) TARGET(Inventory/CurrentItems) + TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
Answer: A
2. An administrator wants to prevent the channel initiator process from starting when a queue manager QMA on AIX is started.
Which action(s) will accomplish this?
A. Restart the queue manager using strmqm ns QMA.
B. Restart the queue manager using strmqm chinit no QMA.
C. Issue the command ALTER QMGR SCHINIT(DISABLED), then restart the queue manager using strmqm QMA.
D. Edit the file qm.ini for QMA and add an entry ChannelInitiator = No in the CHANNELS stanza, then restart the
queue manager using strmqm QMA
Answer: A
3. An administrator has been asked to create a queue manager alias for QM1 to be used for communication between remote queue managers.
What MQSC command will create the queue manager alias?
A. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(’Q1′) RQMNAME(’ ‘) XMITQ(QM1)
B. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(’ ‘) RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(QM1)
C. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(’Q1′) RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(’ ‘)
D. DEF QL(QM1.ALIAS) RQMNAME(QM1)
Answer: B
4. An administrator has created the following MQ objects on two systems:
SYSTEM A
crtmqm -C “VEGGIE QUEUE MANAGER” -LL -Q -D POTATO VEGGIE
DEFINE QR(APPLE) RQMNAME(FRUIT) RNAME(PEACH)
DEFINE QL(DLQ)
DEFINE QL(POTATO) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEF CHL(’VEGGIE. FRUIT’) CHLTYPE(SDR) TRPTYPE(TCP) CONNAME(’9.84.100.7(1414)’) +
XMITQ(’POTATO’)
SYSTEM B
crtmqm -C “FRUIT QUEUE MANAGER” -LL -Q -D GRAPE FRUIT
DEFINE QL(GRAPE) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEFINE QL(PEACH)
DEF CHL(’VEGGIE. FRUIT’) CHLTYPE(RCVR) TRPTYPE(TCP)
An application connects to queue manager VEGGIE and puts a message to queue APPLE. On which queue does the message get delivered before it gets picked up by the sender channel?
A. POTATO
B. APPLE
C. GRAPE
D. PEACH
Answer: A
5. An application deployed on z/OS was causing frequent abends.
Which of the following options from the IPCS Dump Component Panel can an administrator use to analyze the problem?
A. CSQWDMP
B. ASMCHECK
C. DIVDATA
D. DAEDATA
Answer: A
6. What are the four predefined message types?
A. Request, response, publication, datagram
B. Publication, subscription, request, response
C. Request, reply, report, datagram
D. Request, broadcast, acknowledgment, response
Answer: C
7. Which features of IBM WebSphere MQ specifically provide robust message transport?
A. Data integrity, security, parallel processing
B. Asynchronous delivery, once and once-only delivery, persistent messaging
C. Time independence, no duplicate delivery, synchronous processing
D. Assured delivery, application parallelism, time dependent applications
Answer: B
8. Which of the following are performance enhancements to the Java Message Service provider implementation in IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Read Ahead
B. Support for channel exits written in C/C++
C. Asynchronous Put
D. Message selection performed by Queue Manager
E. Ability to access all MQMD fields for IBM WebSphere MQ messages.
Answer: ACD

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9. Which of the following statements are true, regarding applications that communicate via IBM WebSphere MQ?IBM WebSphere MQ applications have to agree upon:
A. the platforms they are running on
B. the name(s) of the queue(s) used
C. the maximum number of messages sent within a given time period
D. the layout of the message data exchanged
E. the network protocol used
Answer: BD
10. A company running IBM WebSphere MQ V5.3 on UNIX upgraded to IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0.Immediately after the migration, what is the administrator expected to do?
Start the:
A. MQSeries service
B. queue manager and listener simultaneously
C. queue manager before starting the listener
D. listener before starting the queue manager
Answer: C
11. An administrator using WebSphere MQ Explorer is unable to connect to queue manager PROD after it has been migrated, and receives error message SYSTEM.MQEXPLORER.REPLY.MODEL not defined.
Which command will refresh the existing system objects to resolve this issue?
A. strmqm c PROD
B. strmqm a PROD
C. strmqm ss PROD
D. strmqm si PROD
Answer: A
12. What are the advantages of using queue-sharing groups in IBM WebSphere MQ?
A. workload balancing, remote administration
B. improved performance, ease of monitoring
C. scalability, end-to-end security, data integrity
D. scalability, high availability, workload balancing
Answer: D
13. Which two user profiles are mandatory to correctly run IBM WebSphere MQ on i5/OS?
A. QMQM, QMQMADM
B. QMQMADIM, mqm
C. mqm, QMQM
D. mqm, MUSR_MQADMIN
Answer: A
14. Which Eclipse version is a prerequisite to use MQ Explorer to administer IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 on Windows?
A. 3.3
B. 3.2
C. 3.1
D. 3.0
Answer: A
15. For the Solaris platform, which databases are supported as a resource manager in transactions coordinated by IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Oracle, Derby, My SQL
B. DB2, Derby, Teradata
C. DB2, Oracle, Informix, Sybase
D. DB2, SQL Server, Sybase, Informix
Answer: C

Test4actual 000-374 exam Features

March 14th, 2010 | test4actual

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 112 Q&A to your 000-374 exam preparation. In the 000-374 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in WebSphere helping to ready you for your successful IBM Certification.

Free 000-374 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for WebSphere 000-374 exam (IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 System Administration). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 System Administration:000-374 exam

March 14th, 2010 | test4actual

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 000-374
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 System Administration Questions and Answers:112Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-11
Price:$119.00
Exam Details
The WebSphere exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate WebSphere certification. The WebSphere (000-374) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Exam:IBM 000-730

March 12th, 2010 | test4actual

1. Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A.Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B.Data can be retrieved by XQuery.
C.XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D.Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole document.
Answer: C
2. A DRDA host database resides on a z/OS or an i5/OS system and listens on port 446. The TCP/IP address for this system is 192.168.10.1 and the TCP/IP host name is myhost. Which of the following commands is required to update the local node directory so that a DB2 client can access this DRDA database?
A.CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 446
B.CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 446
C.CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 192.168.10.1
D.CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 192.168.10.1
Answer: B
3. The following SQL statements were executed in sequence:
What is the current content of the staffsalary table?
A.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000 20 | 50000.00 —————–
B.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 50000.00 20 | 50000.00 —————–
C.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000.00 20 | 60000.00 —————–
D.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000.00 20 | 50000.00 —————–
Answer: C
4. Which of the following queries will correctly return the manager information sorted by the manager’s last name, department and project name?
A.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate FROM (SELECT name, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate FROM employee, project WHERE empno = empno) AS empproj ORDER BY name, dept, projname B.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate FROM employee, project WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj SORT BY lastname, firstname, dept, projname
C.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate FROM employee, project WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj ORDER BY lastname ASC SORT BY dept, projname DESC
D.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate FROM employee, project WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj ORDER BY lastname, dept, projname
Answer: D
5. Which of the following strings can be inserted into an XML column using XMLPARSE?
A.”"
B.”"
C.”"
D.”"
Answer: A
6. When defining a referential constraint between the parent table T2 and the dependent table T1,which of the following is true?
A.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause can be a subset of the list of column names in the primary key of T2 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T2.
B.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause can be a subset of the list of column names in the primary key of T1 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T1.
C.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause must be identical to the list of column names in the primary key of T2 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T2.
D.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause must be identical to the list of column names in the primary key of T1 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T1.
Answer: C
7. Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Linux server that has 6 CPUs?
A.DB2 Express Edition
B.DB2 Personal Edition
C.DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D.DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D
8. Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an AIX server?
A.DB2 Express Edition
B.DB2 Personal Edition
C.DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D.DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: C

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9. Which of the following DB2 products are required on an iSeries or System i server to enable an application running on that server to retrieve data from a DB2 database on a Linux server?
A.DB2 for i5/OS
B.DB2 Runtime Client
C.DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
D.DB2 for i5/OS SQL Development Kit
Answer: A
10. Which product must be installed on z/OS to allow a COBOL program running on that machine to access data on a remote DB2 for z/OS server?
A.DB2 for z/OS
B.DB2 Run-Time Client for z/OS
C.DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition for z/OS
D.z/OS Application Connectivity to DB2 for z/OS and OS/390
Answer: A
11. Which of the following tools can make recommendations for indexes and/or MQTs to improve the performance of DB2 applications?
A.Design Advisor
B.Visual Explain
C.Performance Advisor
D.Configuration Assistant
Answer: A
12. Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to execute an SQL statement and view a graphical representation of the access plan?
A.Task Center
B.Command Editor
C.Developer Workbench
D.Command Line Processor
Answer: B
13. Which tool must be used to analyze all of the database operations performed by an application against a DB2 for i5/OS database?
A.Visual Explain
B.Activity Monitor
C.SQL Performance Monitor
D.DB2 Performance Monitor
Answer: C
14. Which of the following tools for DB2 V9 allows a user to create and debug a SQL stored procedure?
A.Control Center
B.Development Center
C.Developer Workbench
D.Stored Procedure Builder
Answer: C
15. Which of the following tools can be used to schedule a backup operation that is to be run every Sunday evening?
A.Journal
B.Task Center
C.Activity Monitor
D.Command Line Processor
Answer: B

Test4actual 000-730 exam Features

March 12th, 2010 | test4actual

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 128 Q&A to your 000-730 exam preparation. In the 000-730 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in DB2 helping to ready you for your successful IBM Certification.

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DB2 9 Fundamentals:000-730 exam

March 12th, 2010 | test4actual

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 000-730
Exam Name: DB2 9 Fundamentals Questions and Answers:128Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-11
Price:$119.00
Exam Details
The DB2 exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate DB2 certification. The DB2 (000-730) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Exam : Cisco 642-513

March 11th, 2010 | test4actual

Exam : Cisco 642-513
Title : Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent Exam (HIPS)
Version : Demo
1. Which of these is a reason for using groups to administer Agents?
A. to link similar devices together
B. to complete configuration changes on groups instead of hosts
C. to complete the same configuration on like items
D. to apply the same policy to hosts with similar security requirements
Answer: D
2. Which three items make up rules? (Choose three.)
A. variables
B. applications
C. application classes
D. rule modules
E. policies
F. actions
Answer: ACF
3. Which action do you take when you are ready to deploy your CSA configuration to systems?
A. select
B. clone
C. deploy
D. generate rules
Answer: D
4. Which one of the five phases of an attack attempts to become resident on a target?
A. probe phase
B. penetrate phase
C. persist phase
D. propagate phase
E. paralyze phase
Answer: C
5. What is the purpose of the Audit Trail function?
A. to generate a report listing events matching certain criteria, sorted by event severity
B. to generate a report listing events matching certain criteria, sorted by group
C. to generate a report showing detailed information for selected groups
D. to display a detailed history of configuration changes
Answer: D
6. In which type of rules are network address sets used?
A. COM component access control rules
B. connection rate limit rules
C. network access control rules
D. file control rules
E. file access control rules
Answer: C
7.Which three of these does the buffer overflow rule detect on a UNIX operating system, based on the type of memory space involved? (Choose three.)
A. location space
B. stack space
C. slot space
D. data space
E. heap space
F. file space
Answer: BDE
8. When should you use preconfigured application classes for application deployment investigation?
A. never
B. always
C. only for specific applications
D. only when applications require detailed analysis
Answer: A

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9. Which systems with specific operating systems are automatically placed into mandatory groups containing rules for that operating system? (Choose three.)
A. OS2
B. HPUX
C. Solaris
D. Mac OS
E. Linux
F. Windows
Answer: CEF
10. What is the purpose of network access control rules?
A. to control access to network services
B. to control access to network addresses
C. to control access to both network services and network addresses
D. to control access to networks
Answer: C
11. What is the purpose of the Compare tool?
A. to save data that has been configured
B. to compare individual rules
C. to compare individual rule modules
D. to compare and merge configurations
Answer: D
12. If a Solaris or Windows system is not rebooted after CSA installation, which three rules are only enforced when new files are opened, new processes are invoked, or new socket connections are made?(Choose three.)
A. COM component access rules
B. network shield rules
C. buffer overflow rules
D. network access control rules
E. file access control rules
F. demand memory access rules
Answer: CDE
13. For which operating system is the network shield rule available?
A. OS2
B. Windows
C. Linux
D. Solaris
Answer: D
14. What is the maximum number of characters that a policy name can contain?
A. 24
B. 32
C. 48
D. 64
Answer: D
15. What information is logged for registry access control?
A. port and direction
B. registry key
C. registry access events
D. PROGID/CLSID
Answer: B

Test4actual 642-513 exam Features

March 11th, 2010 | test4actual

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 69 Q&A to your 642-513 exam preparation. In the 642-513 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCSP helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

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Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent Exam (HIPS):642-513 exam

March 11th, 2010 | test4actual

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-513
Exam Name: Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent Exam (HIPS)
Questions and Answers:69Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-16
Price:$79.00
Exam Details
The CCSP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCSP certification. The CCSP (642-513) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Exam : Microsoft MB5-292

March 10th, 2010 | test4actual

Exam : Microsoft MB5-292
Title :Microsoft Point of Sale 1.0
Update : Demo
1.If a firewall other than the Windows Firewall is in use on a store’s network, what action must be taken for Microsoft Point of Sale to work properly?
A.Open the firewall for the port used by Point of Sale.
B.Disable the firewall.
C.Give all Point of Sale users permissions on the main computer.
D.None of the above.
Correct:A
2.What is the name of the default MSDE instance installed with Microsoft Point of Sale?
A.(local)
B.\MSPOS
C.\MSPOSInstance
D.\MSPOSPractice
Correct:C
3.Practice mode uses what database?
A.The store database.
B.A backup database.
C.The practice database.
D.None of the above.
Correct:C
4.Microsoft Point of Sale works on which operating systems?(Choose the 2 that apply.)
A.Windows XP SP2.
B.Windows Server 2003.
C.Windows 2000.
D.Windows Millennium Edition.
Correct:A B
5.What is the first step for using practice mode?
A.Set up the practice mode database.
B.Switch to practice mode.
C.Manually create some ‘dummy’ items.
D.Create a special employee record.
Correct:A
6.After installing Microsoft Point of Sale, how many days may pass before the product must be activated?
A.1 day
B.10 days
C.20 days
D.60 days
Correct:C
7.What composes a sales tax?
A.Items.
B.Tax authorities.
C.Prices.
D.None of the above.
Correct:B
8.Which of the following is NOT an option for the “Cost Update Method” in Microsoft Point of Sale Manager?
A.Last Cost
B.Weighted Average
C.FIFO
D.None
Correct:C

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9.To setup the Touchless Tendering feature, which of the following options or configurations is NOT required?
A.Setup Credit and Debit tender types
B.Configure the Validation mask on each Credit and Debit tender type
C.Enable the Verify via EDC checkbox on each Credit and Debit tender type
D.Enable the Touchless Tendering options in Manager under Tools | Options | Tender
Correct:C
10.What causes an exchange rate to go into effect at the register?
A.Assigning a currency with an exchange rate to an active tender type.
B.Using the currency calculator.
C.Having cashiers do manual calculations.
D.None of the above.
Correct:A
11.Which step is NOT required in order for the currency calculator to be available at the register:
A.Select “Use currency calculator” on the Tender tab of the Options dialog box.
B.Set up a cash tender type.
C.Specify the tender type that will be used to give change at the register.
D.Set up denominations for a cash tender type.
Correct:C
12.Before you can ring up a sale, tender types must be set up where?
A.In the Tender window.
B.In Manager.
C.In the Options dialog box.
D.None of the above.
Correct:B
13.Currencies are used for what?
A.Defining the types of payment accepted by the store.
B.Defining accepted currencies and exchange rates for the store.
C.Defining the country where the store is located.
D.None of the above.
Correct:B
14.Typically, you have one receipt format for each type of what?
A.Receipt printer.
B.Receipt.
C.Invoice.
D.Report.
Correct:B
15.You have recently signed an agreement to accept the American Express card. You have created a new tender type named AMEX; however, the tender does not appear in the POS when tendering a sale. What should you do to display the new tender?
A.Perform a Z report at each POS register
B.Mark the “Verify using EDC” option on the tender properties
C.Settle the existing credit card batch
D.Configure the Validation Format on the tender
Correct:A